Paxton Patterson Emergency Medical Technician Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which item is NOT part of a SAMPLE history?
• Which sign is most indicative of anaphylaxis requiring EMS intervention?
• Is the statement 'With CPR, the primary goal is to get the heart to beat on its own again' true?
• What type of wound is created when a nail punctures through the shoe into the foot?
• In a rapid trauma assessment, the DCAP-BTLS mnemonic helps identify which categories?
• Which action is not part of suspected opioid overdose management?
• Which of the following is NOT a purpose of CPR?
• The difference between a laceration and an incision is:
• During a rapid trauma assessment, what does DCAP-BTLS stand for, and how is it used?
• Which burn type involves exposure to chemicals?
• Which finding indicates poor perfusion in shock?
• What is the medical term for fluid around a knee joint after injury?
• Which statement best describes the role of an AED in cardiac emergencies?
• What is the purpose of the National Trauma Triage Protocol chart?
• What is a recommended sequence for managing a life-threatening external hemorrhage?
• Which action best monitors for a wound infection?
• Which scenario makes a virus airborne?
• If a person with a history of heart attack collapses and then recovers, you should immediately:
• When choking on an object stuck in their throat, the most serious problem is:
• The first thing to determine when approaching a patient on the scene of an accident is:
• Which of the following is not a reliable way to assess consciousness?
• Is it true that the HIV/AIDS virus is contagious and can be spread by not covering a cough or sneeze, like a cold?
• Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for plaque build‑up in the arteries?
• What term describes the accumulation of fluid around a joint, such as the knee, after injury?
• What is the recommended depth for adult chest compressions?
• The following are examples of antibiotics except:
• How do nasal cannula and nonrebreather masks differ in FiO2 delivery and appropriate use?
• Like bacteria, there are many healthy and useful viruses.
• Which oxygen delivery device provides the highest FiO2 when used properly?
• What does the trauma assessment DCAP-BTLS cover?
• Which is the EMT level that can administer medications?
• Which type of wound has jagged edges?
• What describes a thermal burn?
• Which cleaning solution should be avoided when cleaning wounds?
• The statement 'Do not call 911 unless you are certain that a patient is having a heart attack' is:
• How should you determine if an adult patient needs CPR during the primary assessment?
• In pediatric CPR, how should chest compression depth be chosen?
• In two-rescuer pediatric CPR, what is the correct ratio of chest compressions to ventilations?
• Which of the following is not a sign of a possible heart attack?
• If a burn wound appears charred black, white, or dry, what action is recommended?
• Which vessel type carries blood away from the heart?
• Triage is the process of:
• What is a typical initial management step for a patient with acute dyspnea due to suspected CHF when protocol allows?
• Which statement is true about focal seizures?
• What is the primary purpose of post-resuscitation care in EMS?
• What is the standard aspirin dose for suspected ACS in the EMS setting and how should it be given?
• The very first thing EMTs must do when they arrive on the scene is:
• Atherosclerosis is:
• What is the standard chest compression to rescue breaths ratio in adult CPR?
• In shock, which vital signs and indicators are most critical to monitor?
• Which of the following is an effect of nitroglycerin spray?
• Is the following statement true or false: Once pressure is applied to a main artery, there is no longer a need to elevate or apply direct pressure to the wound?
• To treat a burn of any size, apply ice directly to the area.
• Unlike CPR, an AED:
• Which statement correctly explains why viruses are not classified as living organisms?
• Even when treating a patient in their own home, EMTs should first check the area for safety hazards.
• What steps are followed when a patient has a mental status change due to medical causes?
• It is possible for a patient to continue breathing after his or her heart has stopped beating.
• Edema with cyanotic discoloration describes tissue that is swollen and blue.
• Although viruses can have RNA and/or DNA, they do not qualify as living things because:
• How is a rapid trauma assessment structured?
• Which of the following lists describes an ecchymosis?
• T-cells are needed by the immune system to:
• Safety hazards should be checked before assisting in any setting.
• Which antidote is commonly administered for suspected opioid overdose when indicated?
• Which option describes an electrical injury?
• A patient with a compound fracture should be monitored for signs of what complication due to the extreme injury?
• What are the three components of the Pediatric Assessment Triangle?
• Which value is outside the normal resting pulse range for a healthy adult?
• Why identify and treat underlying causes after resuscitation?
• Which components help blood form clots around a tissue injury?
• Which is not a common sign an EMT looks for in an unconscious patient?
• What is one method to check whether a person is breathing?
• Which is an appropriate initial approach for suspected congestive heart failure with dyspnea?
• HIV/AIDS falls in which category?
• In a conscious patient with hypoglycemia who can swallow, what is the recommended initial treatment?
• What does edema refer to?
• In suspected myocardial infarction, what is the recommended transport action after initial treatment?
• Which statement about the circulatory system is false?
• The first step when you suspect poisoning is to call 911.
• What signs and symptoms indicate anaphylaxis that requires EMS intervention?
• Which statement best describes the purpose of CPR?
• What is the recommended oxygen strategy for suspected airway injury from burns?
• Which signs indicate airway injury in a burn patient and what is immediate management?
• A gurney is best described as:
• Which of the following statements about viruses is true?
• What is the primary purpose of capillary refill assessment in shock?
• What is the proper initial approach to heat-related emergencies in EMS?
• The statement 'Only the patient being treated is allowed to ride in the ambulance' is:
• Which statement best describes ongoing training after becoming an EMT?
• Before taking any EMT trainings or classes, Marie must:
• Humans need to take antibiotics to kill all of the bacteria in their digestive systems.
• Which of the following is not a means of transmitting the virus that causes HIV?
• What is the recommended chest compression cadence during CPR?
• What are the essential CPR parameters for adult resuscitation?
• What should not be used to clean wounds?
• Which term describes the scraped skin wound commonly seen after sliding on gravel?
• Which position is preferred for a patient with dyspnea due to suspected CHF if tolerated?
• Which statement about infections is correct?
• Which statement about abrasions is true?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between chemical and thermal burns?
• Why is it important not to restrain a patient during a seizure?
• The statement 'If a choking victim can breathe and is conscious, they do not require any further assistance' is:
• Influenza vaccines are updated annually because the virus mutates. Which statement is correct?
• Which statement correctly describes which EMS level can administer medications?
• Which wound is described as a clean-cut with smooth edges?
• Should you always call 911 for a choking person, even if they are conscious and coughing?
• What is the initial step in the trauma scene size-up?
• Can a heart attack occur with signs but without chest pain?
• What do viruses and bacteria have in common?
• Which signs raise suspicion of cervical spine injury in a trauma patient?
• Which term describes a wound caused by a pointed object?
• If you are prescribed antibiotics, when should you stop taking them?
• Seizure is defined as:
• What is the purpose of the logroll maneuver in spinal immobilization?
• What is a heart attack?
• Which is an appropriate approach for a pediatric patient with suspected epiglottitis or croup?
• When should an automated external defibrillator be applied in cardiac arrest?
• In suspected myocardial infarction, how should an EMT position and treat the patient while awaiting transport?
• Which statement about poisoning is accurate?
• Which action is inappropriate during scene management when multiple patients are involved?
• Two-rescuer CPR on a child, which statement is correct?
• If compressions per minute are 70 for 3 minutes, how many compressions would be delivered?
• If a choking victim can breathe and is conscious, he or she does not require any further assistance.
• Which step is essential when immobilizing a pediatric patient for transport?
• What is the very first action an EMT should take when arriving at an emergency scene?
• Unconsciousness is best described as:
• What does the Glasgow Coma Scale range indicate about patient status?
• True or False: A First Responder is trained to provide a full range of emergency medical services.
• In adults with suspected airway obstruction due to foreign body, what is the recommended intervention if the patient is conscious and able to cough?
• What is the primary purpose of oxygen administration beyond correcting hypoxemia?
• Which of the following is true about HIV/AIDS?
• The influenza vaccine is updated annually because the virus mutates. Choose the correct option.
• Which statement about viruses is true?
• If a person collapses and then recovers, you should immediately call 911.
• Radiation sickness is:
• In suspected poisoning, the recommended first action is to:
• During transport of a pediatric patient, what immobilization approach should be used?
• What is the correct sequence to control external bleeding?
• In the initial primary assessment, which order of priorities is followed for life threats?
• In which situation is an automated external defibrillator indicated?
• Which action best ensures scene safety before patient care?
• If bleeding continues after initial direct pressure is applied, which action is typically recommended next?
• Which action is appropriate during a seizure at the scene?
• To quickly assess brain function after a minor car accident, an EMT might ask the patient to provide which information?
• A burn covering about two inches on a hand that is painful, red, and swollen but no blisters should be treated as a second-degree burn.
• An EMT notes edema with cyanotic discoloration. What does this describe?
• Why should agitation be avoided in pediatric airway management for suspected epiglottitis or croup?
• HIV/AIDS is an example of a virus.
• The first step when you think someone has been exposed to poison is to:
• When is it appropriate to suction the airway with a rigid suction catheter in the field?
• Which of the following statements about antibiotics is true?
• Which statement best reflects the relationship between antibiotics and infections?
• When there are multiple people injured on an accident scene, the EMTs:
• Which statement about 911 is correct?
• Which scenario might trigger a trauma alert or rapid transport?
• The FAST exam screens for stroke by evaluating which components?
• To become an EMT, a person must first work as a firefighter.
• If you are immunized, you are:
• Capillary refill in shock indicates what?
• Which statement about wound care is true?
• What does the Glasgow Coma Scale assess?
• What steps should you take when documenting refusal of care by a competent adult?
• Which of the following statements is correct?
• What is the primary purpose of scene size-up during the EMS primary assessment?
• Where should you dial 911?
• When should a tourniquet be applied in the field?
• Which statement about CPR is true?
• What is the recommended action for a minor burn to cool the area?
• Atherosclerosis is defined as the hardening of the arteries caused by fatty plaque.
• Mike's superficial bleeding from gravel indicates which type of wound?
• Which element should be documented with regard to treatments administered in prehospital care?
• How does EMS protocol define a high-priority patient in triage?
• Which statement about antibiotics is true?
• What is the purpose of the Pediatric Assessment Triangle?
• If standard 325 mg aspirin is prescribed, how many tablets should be given?
• A patient is bleeding severely from the forearm just below the elbow. After applying direct pressure and elevation, which artery should be pressed to control bleeding?
• Rubor refers to which of the following?
• Which statement about viruses is true?
• What is the pediatric CPR guideline difference between one rescuer and two rescuers?
• Which statement about being an EMT is true?
• Which statement about HIV transmission is correct?
• It is important for everyone to be trained in the Heimlich Maneuver.
• If a wound from a burn appears charred black, white, or dry, this is an example of which type of burn?
• How can an EMT distinguish between angina and myocardial infarction in the field?
• How do you assess for a potential head injury in an unconscious patient?
• Which statement best describes the purpose of applying direct pressure to a bleeding wound?
• Which of the following is not an effect of nitroglycerin spray?
• Which of the following best describes the role of proteins and platelets in the body?
• If a burn that covers about two inches on a patient's hand is painful, red, and swollen, but there are no blisters, treat the wound as a:
• What is the EMS approach to suspected opioid overdose?
• Which of the following scenarios does not require calling 911?
• Poisoning is defined as:
• Current guidelines call for 30 chest compressions followed by two breaths when administering CPR. If a bystander delivered 60 compressions per minute and EMS arrived 4 minutes after the scene, how many compressions would be delivered before EMS arrived?
• Radiation sickness is defined as illness and symptoms resulting from
• Which option describes a puncture wound?
• In order to stop bleeding from a cut on the arm, what is the recommended first aid step?
• If someone shows signs of a heart attack but does not have chest pain, what should you do?
• What is the correct method to measure blood pressure in an anxious patient?
• Which item is specifically relevant to documenting patient consent or refusal in prehospital care?
• Which statement about CPR is true?
• What is the maximum recommended suction time during field suctioning?
• What oxygen delivery method and flow rate is typically used for a patient in respiratory distress with suspected hypoxemia?
• After boiling water splashed on your arm, you should:
• What best describes a chemical burn?
• At the scene of a car accident, if a woman involved says she is okay, the EMT should:
• Which of the following is most likely not toxic or harmful if swallowed?
• When overdose or poisoning with unknown substances is suspected, what is a priority action?
• Which item is part of a SAMPLE history?